Why have you taken, the overlap of only b,c and Only b,s as 'Z'. why are both the same?
@vivekkyadav721
3 күн бұрын
If I get it right, then its because C & S are equal as evident from ratio of 2:1:1. So, say if M is common of only B&C and N is common of only B&S, so B = (3x + y + 100+ M) & similarly S = (3x, + y + 100+ N) and we know that C=S, implies that M=N, hence he took them as 'z'. Hope it helps!
@lihaz9911
2 күн бұрын
because C and S are in 1:1. so if C=3x+y+100+z then being all other things euqal overlap is equal for S too.
Пікірлер: 5