Clear interpretation 😇...Take love❣️❣️ from Bangladesh 🇧🇩🇧🇩🇧🇩
@JEE-nf1cv
Ай бұрын
Clear explanation thank you very much
@misstopper1
24 күн бұрын
Thank you sir
@user-ov7qg2wt6p
3 жыл бұрын
In your previous video about Binomial distribution, for discrete it was probability density function and here you are mentioning about pmf. I m confused with pdf and pmf
@DrHarishGarg
3 жыл бұрын
No problem its name only. ... In general, pmf is used for discrete distribution while pdf for continuous one...
@tavleensasan2408
Ай бұрын
Sir why E(X(X-1))=x.(x-1). P(x) why not E(X(X-1))=x(x-1).P(x(x-1)) in Variance derivation.
@beenarai5273
Жыл бұрын
Easy and best way to teach thank you so much sir 😊
@DrHarishGarg
Жыл бұрын
So nice of you.... Thanks
@liwen9244
5 ай бұрын
Hi sir, I just wanna ask when we prove Var(X), why cannot we directly use sum of x^2 *p -{E(X)}^2?But we need to write X^2 in X(X-1) form? Thx !❤❤
@kuldeepkonwar2195
4 ай бұрын
Derivation becomes difficult other way.
@AniketGupta-gn2we
Жыл бұрын
Thank u very much
@Dupamine
2 жыл бұрын
what does it even mean for something to be 'expected value of 5 or 6'?
@DrHarishGarg
2 жыл бұрын
Probability of 5or 6 is 1/6+1/6= 1/3.. Based on number of dice thrown, you can find the expected value as n*(1/3) =n/3
@Dupamine
2 жыл бұрын
@@DrHarishGarg Thank you Dr. harish . me and my friend watch your videos everyday. I understood the math behind this in the video but i am confused on what does 'expected value' conceptually mean in the case of dice. Usually it means the 'mean' but 'mean' makes less CONCEPTUAL sense when thinking of throwing dices.
@risahabhbeast7370
Жыл бұрын
Sir why did the domain change from 0 to 1 when we cancelled out x 1:36
@endoumamoru3835
Жыл бұрын
If you put 0 in denominator, you will get (-1)!
@DrHarishGarg
Жыл бұрын
When we cancel x it means x=0 exclude from the domain , thats why x change from 0 to 1.... Similarly for variance, we cancel x(x-1) thus x change from 0 to 2... Hope it clear.
@poonambajaj17
Жыл бұрын
In last example the mean(0.4) is not greater than variance(1.6) which is the resultant of relation between mean and variance of binomial distribution. Does it mean that the distribution or that example does not belong to binomial?
@DrHarishGarg
Жыл бұрын
Yes, when mean < variance for a random variable X then it means that X does not follow Binomial distribution.,
@shivanikumari6778
Жыл бұрын
Thanku sir 😊
@berealistic4658
Жыл бұрын
Plzzz let me know theirs proofs do come in exams????????
Пікірлер: 29