Hello mathematicians!
Here I bring you a proof of the convergence of the sequence 1/n to 0 using the definition.
Depending on the author, it can be considered that 0 is not in the set of natural numbers, which is the case in this case (0 has no inverse), and it would coincide with the set of positive integers.
To write this example considering the natural 0, you would have to write 1/(n+1) in the expressions of 1/n (more writing).
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